UBBL 2016 Chapter 2 – MCQ Practice for DDA/ATP Exam Part 2

UBBL 2016 – Chapter 2 MCQ Question Bank (Set 4 & Set 5)

Jump to: Set 4 – 40 MCQs (CAF, NOCs, Plans & Fees) Set 5 – 40 MCQs (Validity, OCC, Regularisation & GRC)

Set 4 – 40 MCQs (CAF, NOCs, Plans & Fees)

Attempt all questions and then click “Check Set 4 Answers”. You will see your score and per-question red/green feedback.

1. Q1. “Common Application Form (CAF)” primarily combines:

   (A) Ownership transfer and tax assessment (B) Building permit application and property registration (C) Building plan sanction request + information for all external NOCs (D) Only plinth inspection request

2. Q2. COCCRF is mainly used for:

   (A) Change of land use (B) Layout approval (C) Occupancy-cum-Completion Certificate and NOC requests (D) Regularisation of unauthorised colonies

3. Q3. Which of the following is NOT a typical enclosure with CAF?

   (A) Ownership documents (B) Site plan and building plans (C) Structural safety and supervision declarations (D) Sale deed of neighbouring plots

4. Q4. In UBBL 2016, which communication mode is preferred for all building permission processes?

   (A) Only handwritten letters (B) Online / electronic communication (portal / email) (C) Fax-based intimation (D) Newspaper notices

5. Q5. Minor addition/alteration without permit is allowed when:

   (A) F.A.R is increased but height remains same (B) Cubic content and built-up area remain same and bye-laws are not violated (C) Use of building is changed (D) Additional basement is provided

6. Q6. Which of the following requires a building permit?

   (A) White-washing, painting (B) Simple re-flooring (C) Re-roofing at same height and without extra load (D) Addition of a new habitable room

7. Q7. Sunshade up to 0.75 m width without permit is allowed only if:

   (A) It projects over public street (B) It is within owner’s land and does not overhang public street (C) It touches plot boundary line (D) It is below ground level

8. Q8. Internal partition walls can be added/removed without building permit if:

   (A) They are load-bearing (B) They induce additional floor load (C) They do not affect structural safety and only re-arrange internal space (D) They encroach into setback

9. Q9. Maximum area for porta cabin allowed without building permit in certain large plots is:

   (A) 2 sqm (B) 4.5 sqm (C) 7.5 sqm (D) 9 sqm

10. Q10. Erection of lifts in existing buildings without permit applies to:

    (A) All high-rise towers (B) Industrial buildings only (C) Existing buildings in residential plotted low-rise development (D) All institutional buildings universally

11. Q11. Which is NOT included under “services plan” accompanying the building plan?

    (A) Water supply lines (B) Sewerage and drainage (C) Electrical and fire-fighting systems (D) Detailed interior furniture layout

12. Q12. Key plan scale recommended in UBBL 2016 is:

    (A) Not less than 1:500 (B) Not less than 1:2,000 (C) Not less than 1:5,000 (D) Not less than 1:10,000

13. Q13. All drawings under UBBL 2016 are to be prepared in:

    (A) Imperial units only (B) Mixed metric and imperial (C) Metric units only (D) Any convenient units

14. Q14. In recommended colouring, existing work to be retained is generally shown as:

    (A) Yellow hatched (B) Green (C) Red (D) Blue dotted

15. Q15. Proposed new work in plans is shown with:

    (A) Green line (B) Red line (C) Yellow hatch (D) Blue dotted

16. Q16. Proposed drains and water supply lines are indicated with:

    (A) Red dotted and blue dotted lines respectively (B) Green solid lines (C) Yellow solid lines (D) Black hatch

17. Q17. For site areas up to 1000 sqm, minimum recommended site plan scale is:

    (A) 1:1000 (B) 1:500 (C) 1:200 (D) 1:100

18. Q18. Which of these is NOT a purpose of giving standard sheet sizes (A0–A4)?

    (A) Easy storage and handling (B) Standardisation for printing and scanning (C) Enabling easy online submission (D) Encouraging handwritten plans on any paper

19. Q19. Common Application Form helps mainly to:

    (A) Reduce frequency of site visits to zero (B) Avoid separate sets of documents for each NOC agency (C) Avoid structural design (D) Skip occupancy certificate

20. Q20. Which document proves leasehold title during CAF submission?

    (A) Only mutation certificate (B) Allotment letter/lease deed + proof of possession / lease validity (C) Latest property tax receipt (D) Utility bill

21. Q21. Which of the following satisfies the requirement of proving ownership in freehold property?

    (A) Registered sale/lease/conveyance deed in owner’s name (B) Power of attorney without any deed (C) Electricity bill alone (D) Property tax receipt alone

22. Q22. Assertion (A): CAF includes tentative dates of start and completion of work.
    Reason (R): This helps automatic intimation to Labour Department regarding duration of construction.

    (A) A and R both true, R correct explanation (B) A and R both true, R not correct explanation (C) A true, R false (D) A false, R true

23. Q23. Structural safety declaration in CAF is given by:

    (A) Owner only (B) Architect only (C) Structural Engineer and relevant professionals (D) Fire department

24. Q24. Notice for building permit is generally deemed invalid if:

    (A) Photographs are not coloured (B) Required fees are not paid (C) Architect’s seal is in blue ink (D) CAF is filed online

25. Q25. Building permit fee is normally charged on:

    (A) Carpet area only (B) Built-up or covered area as defined in the bye-laws (C) Plot area only (D) Road width

26. Q26. For storage/warehouse buildings, permit fee per sqm is:

    (A) Higher than regular buildings (B) Same as regular buildings (C) Lower than regular buildings (D) Zero

27. Q27. Revision of building plans attracts:

    (A) No fee (B) Lump sum fee irrespective of area (C) Same rate per sqm as original building permit (D) Only scrutiny fee

28. Q28. Land-subdivision/layout approval fee is primarily based on:

    (A) Number of plots (B) Plot size of each plot (C) Total area in acres/hectares (D) F.A.R utilised

29. Q29. Resubmission of plan after rejection (up to three times) generally requires:

    (A) Full permit fee again (B) A nominal per sqm resubmission fee (C) No fee at all (D) Only online registration

30. Q30. Assertion (A): External NOCs are fully independent of building permit process.
    Reason (R): Building permit is issued only by municipal authority and does not depend on external agencies.

    (A) A and R both true (B) A true, R false (C) A false, R true (D) A and R both false

31. Q31. External agencies like DFS, DPCC, DUAC, AAI share their decision on NOC through:

    (A) CAF/COCCRF integrated system (B) Physical files only (C) Newspaper notifications (D) Direct SMS to owner

32. Q32. If an external NOC agency does not respond within stipulated time, normally:

    (A) NOC is deemed refused (B) NOC is deemed granted as per provisions (C) Case is closed without decision (D) Applicant must start process again

33. Q33. Reasoning: Colour-Coded Zonal Maps (CCZM) are mandated so that:

    (A) Applicants can choose paint colours of buildings (B) Public knows environmental and risk zones affecting permits and NOCs (C) Furniture layout is simplified (D) Maintenance charges are reduced

34. Q34. The risk-based approach in Chapter 2 and 3 mainly affects:

    (A) Professional fees (B) Intensity of scrutiny and number of inspections (C) Land-use classification (D) Property tax rate

35. Q35. For very low and low risk buildings, sanctioning authority generally relies on:

    (A) Third-party inspections only (B) Self-certification by professionals and random checks (C) Daily detailed inspections (D) Site visits before every slab

36. Q36. For moderate and high risk buildings, SA:

    (A) Performs plinth and final inspections as per time-bound procedure (B) Relies solely on architect’s completion certificate (C) Does not inspect at all (D) Only checks online drawings, never site

37. Q37. Which statement is TRUE about deemed sanction of building plans?

    (A) It legalises violations of lease deed (B) It automatically modifies Master Plan (C) It does not permit any rule violation; only compensates for delay in decision (D) It cancels need for OCC

38. Q38. In case of partial compliance of objections on building plan:

    (A) SA must still sanction within same time (B) Time for decision is counted afresh from date of full compliance (C) Application is automatically rejected (D) Architect becomes solely liable

39. Q39. Notice for demolition under UBBL 2016:

    (A) Is never required (B) Uses same CAF framework (C) Has separate procedure but still follows sanctioning authority’s control (D) Is handled only by Fire department

40. Q40. Building plan approvals under UBBL 2016 are expected to be:

    (A) Fully manual, file-based (B) Fully political (C) Automated and online, with time-bound decisions (D) Based on verbal instructions

Show Set 4 Answer Key

Q1–C Q2–C Q3–D Q4–B Q5–B Q6–D Q7–B Q8–C Q9–D Q10–C Q11–D Q12–D Q13–C Q14–B Q15–B Q16–A Q17–C Q18–D Q19–B Q20–B Q21–A Q22–A Q23–C Q24–B Q25–B Q26–C Q27–C Q28–C Q29–B Q30–D Q31–A Q32–B Q33–B Q34–B Q35–B Q36–A Q37–C Q38–B Q39–C Q40–C

Set 5 – 40 MCQs (Validity, OCC, Regularisation & GRC)

Attempt all questions and then click “Check Set 5 Answers”.

1. Q1. Maximum validity of a building permit from the date of sanction is:

   (A) 3 years (B) 4 years (C) 5 years (D) 7 years

2. Q2. Minimum requirement to keep permit valid is that construction should commence within:

   (A) 6 months of sanction (B) 9 months of sanction (C) 1 year of sanction (D) 2 years of sanction

3. Q3. After expiry of building permit, further construction is:

   (A) Allowed if architect agrees (B) Allowed with double fees only (C) Not permitted unless revalidated (D) Automatically regularised

4. Q4. Application for OCC must be filed within:

   (A) 15 days of construction completion only (B) 30 days from expiry of permit validity / lease period (C) 60 days from first occupation (D) One year from completion

5. Q5. Revalidation of building permit can be granted:

   (A) In blocks of 1 year up to 5 years at a time (B) Only once for 1 year (C) Only after complete demolition (D) Without any time limit

6. Q6. Ownership documents at time of revalidation are needed particularly if:

   (A) Construction is within one year (B) Lease construction period has expired or ownership has changed (C) Architect has changed (D) Contractor is replaced

7. Q7. Plinth inspection for very low/low risk buildings is primarily done by:

   (A) Local MLA (B) Architect/Engineer/Supervisor (C) Police (D) External structural auditor only

8. Q8. Plinth inspection for moderate/high risk buildings is carried out by:

   (A) Sanctioning Authority’s officers (B) Residents’ welfare association (C) Contractor (D) Only Fire department

9. Q9. Time limit for sanctioning authority to carry out plinth inspection after C-1 is received:

   (A) 3 days (B) 7 days (C) 14 days (D) 30 days

10. Q10. If plinth inspection is not done within prescribed period:

    (A) Work must stop (B) Architect must reapply (C) Plinth is treated as deemed accepted and work can proceed as per sanctioned plan (D) OCC becomes automatic

11. Q11. OCC is normally applied after:

    (A) Foundation level (B) Plinth level (C) Completion of work as per sanctioned plan (D) First slab

12. Q12. For OCC, minimum conditions include:

    (A) All interiors completed with furniture (B) Complete façade lighting (C) Basic flooring, wiring, sanitary fittings, access & safe use of toilets/kitchen, lockable envelope (D) Fully occupied building

13. Q13. Partial OCC usually can be given:

    (A) For part of a block (e.g., only 2 floors of a tower) (B) For entire block from ground to terrace, inclusive of stilt/basement (C) Only for basement (D) Only for roof

14. Q14. Partial OCC does NOT:

    (A) Permit use of that part of building (B) Extend validity of main building permit (C) Require payment of charges (D) Need structural stability certificate

15. Q15. If external agencies do not give their NOC for OCC within stipulated time:

    (A) OCC is automatically refused (B) Building must be vacated (C) Their NOC is deemed issued for OCC purpose (D) Architect is blacklisted

16. Q16. Assertion (A): Time limit for OCC decision starts from date of submission of COCCRF.
    Reason (R): If shortcomings are pointed out, and owner resubmits compliance, countdown restarts from last compliance date.

    (A) A and R both true, R correct explanation (B) A and R both true, R not correct explanation (C) A true, R false (D) A false, R true

17. Q17. If owner fails to remove OCC shortcomings within 15 days:

    (A) OCC is automatically approved (B) OCC application may be rejected and permit fees forfeited (C) Only small penalty is imposed (D) Building is demolished

18. Q18. Deemed OCC arises when:

    (A) Owner occupies building first (B) Architect certifies completion (C) SA fails to communicate any decision within stipulated time (D) Contractor demands

19. Q19. Deemed OCC is actually released after:

    (A) Formal intimation from owner that all requisite fees/charges have been paid (B) Verification of interior design (C) Sale of entire project (D) Newspaper advertisement

20. Q20. Deemed OCC does NOT:

    (A) Allow legal use as per occupancy (B) Regularise violations of title/lease and MPD (C) Allow property registration (D) Support utility connections

21. Q21. Regularisation under 2.8 applies to:

    (A) Any unauthorised building irrespective of extent (B) Only when development is within ambit of BBL/MPD and compoundable deviations, with payment of charges (C) Buildings older than 50 years (D) Buildings approved in MPD 1962 only

22. Q22. Regularisation is granted through:

    (A) Sanction letter in Form B-1 (B) Plinth report in Form C-2 (C) Regularisation Certificate in Form D-3 (D) Ad-hoc office memo

23. Q23. Under 2.9.1, building permit can be revoked if:

    (A) Owner is late in tax payment (B) False statements/misrepresentation are discovered in application (C) Architect changes his office (D) Neighbours complain about noise

24. Q24. Demolition of unauthorised construction beyond permissible limits is done:

    (A) At the risk and cost of owner (B) At the cost of SA (C) By residents’ welfare association (D) Without any cost to anyone

25. Q25. Assertion (A): Professionals who misrepresent facts can be de-listed under UBBL 2016.
    Reason (R): De-listing and publication of names act as deterrent and promote ethical practice.

    (A) A and R both true, R correct explanation (B) A and R both true, R not correct explanation (C) A true, R false (D) A false, R true

26. Q26. De-listing details of defaulting professionals are to be:

    (A) Kept strictly confidential (B) Sent only to COA and never made public (C) Prominently displayed on websites of sanctioning authorities (D) Shared on social media only

27. Q27. In case of architect’s misconduct, SA may inform:

    (A) Town & Country Planning Organisation (B) Council of Architecture (COA) (C) National Green Tribunal (D) Public Works Department

28. Q28. Latent defects liability typically covers:

    (A) Visible minor plaster cracks only (B) Long-term structural defects not apparent at OCC stage (C) Interior decoration (D) Landscaping only

29. Q29. Decennial professional liability insurance normally covers a period of:

    (A) 2 years (B) 5 years (C) 10 years (D) 20 years

30. Q30. Plots for which latent defects liability applies are:

    (A) All plots irrespective of size (B) Plots of area 750 sqm and above (C) Only plots below 100 sqm (D) Only industrial plots

31. Q31. Parties covered under latent defects liability include all, EXCEPT:

    (A) Architect (B) Structural Engineer (C) Developer and main contractor (D) Town Planner of sanctioning authority

32. Q32. Owner’s responsibility under 2.11 is:

    (A) Fully transferred to architect after sanction (B) To ensure construction remains in full conformity with bye-laws, even after approvals (C) To avoid reading bye-laws (D) To visit office every week

33. Q33. Pre-Code Building Permit refers to:

    (A) Permit issued under earlier building bye-laws before UBBL 2016 came into force (B) Permit issued under MPD 2041 (C) Permit issued for pre-fabricated buildings (D) Permit for buildings without any basement

34. Q34. Grievance Redressal Committee under UBBL 2016 deals with:

    (A) Criminal cases (B) Land acquisition (C) Interpretation of bye-laws & redressal of applicant grievances (D) Property valuation

35. Q35. Decisions of Grievance Redressal Committee regarding interpretation are:

    (A) Advisory only (B) Final and binding on sanctioning authority (C) Non-binding suggestions (D) Applicable for one year only

36. Q36. As per UBBL 2016, who is discouraged from pursuing cases in SA offices?

    (A) Owner (B) Duly appointed architect/engineer/supervisor (C) Agents/property dealers without authorisation (D) Registered structural engineer

37. Q37. UBBL 2016 encourages owners to:

    (A) Always go through middlemen (B) Prefer online system and authorised professionals, avoiding unauthorised agents (C) Avoid all communication with SA (D) Submit anonymous applications

38. Q38. Which statement best describes the philosophy of Chapter 2 (read with Chapters 3 & 4)?

    (A) Increase number of physical files (B) Time-bound, transparent, risk-based online approval system (C) Unlimited discretionary powers without timelines (D) Offline-only manual procedures

39. Q39. Assertion (A): Building approvals are now risk-based and time-bound.
    Reason (R): Different categories of buildings face different levels of scrutiny and inspection in proportion to their risk.

    (A) A and R both true, R correct explanation (B) A and R both true, R not correct explanation (C) A true, R false (D) A false, R true

40. Q40. Overall, what remains the ultimate legal obligation of the owner even after getting sanction and OCC?

    (A) To recover costs from architect (B) To ensure building conforms to Master Plan, bye-laws and title conditions; liability for violations rests with owner (C) To shift all responsibility to contractor (D) To inform neighbours about construction

Show Set 5 Answer Key

Q1–C Q2–C Q3–C Q4–B Q5–A Q6–B Q7–B Q8–A Q9–B Q10–C Q11–C Q12–C Q13–B Q14–B Q15–C Q16–A Q17–B Q18–C Q19–A Q20–B Q21–B Q22–C Q23–B Q24–A Q25–A Q26–C Q27–B Q28–B Q29–C Q30–B Q31–D Q32–B Q33–A Q34–C Q35–B Q36–C Q37–B Q38–B Q39–A Q40–B