UBBL 2016 Chapter 2 – MCQ Practice for DDA/ATP Exam Part 1

UBBL 2016 – Chapter 2 MCQ Mega Quiz (Procedure & Documentation)

Jump to: Set 1 – 30 MCQs (CAF, Minor Works, Plans & Fees) Set 2 – 30 MCQs (Validity, Plinth, OCC, Regularisation) Set 3 – 30 MCQs (Latent Defects, GRC, Owner’s Liability)

Set 1 – 30 MCQs (CAF, Minor Works, Plans & Fees)

Attempt all questions and then click “Check Set 1 Answers”. Your score and per-question feedback will appear below.

1. Q1. Under UBBL 2016, the entire process from sanction to OCC is routed primarily through:

   (A) Separate applications to each NOC agency (B) Common Application Form (CAF) and COCCRF (C) Offline file movement through DDA and MCD only (D) Only online application to Delhi Fire Service

2. Q2. For residential plots up to 105 sqm in approved layouts / special areas / regularised colonies (excluding LBZ), procedure is governed by:

   (A) Annexure–III (B) SARAL Scheme (Chapter 4) (C) Annexure–IV (D) Master Plan for Delhi only

3. Q3. Which one is NOT a step in the standard procedure listed in bye-law 2.0.1(b)?

   (A) Submission of CAF with plans and fees (B) Plinth level inspection (C) Grant of sanction and release of sanctioned plan (D) Direct issue of OCC without any site inspection

4. Q4. “Building permit not required” for minor works is allowed only when:

   (A) Structural system is substantially changed (B) Fire safety provisions are relaxed (C) There is no change in cubic contents / built-up area and no violation of BBL (D) The owner gives an affidavit

5. Q5. Which of the following does NOT require building permit under 2.0.1(d)?

   (A) Re-roofing at same height (B) Opening/closing windows within owner’s plot (C) Construction of a new floor with same F.A.R (D) Flooring and re-flooring

6. Q6. Sunshade construction without permit is allowed up to:

   (A) 45 cm width, even over public street (B) 60 cm width, only in front setback (C) 75 cm width, within owner’s land, not overhanging public street (D) 1.0 m width, anywhere around the building

7. Q7. In plots > 3000 sqm (other than residential plotted), which of these may be allowed in setback area without building permit, subject to fire movement?

   (A) Basement shops (B) Bank ATM (≤9 sqm), public washroom, security/guard room (C) Banquet hall (D) Restaurant

8. Q8. A porta cabin can be placed without building permit up to:

   (A) 2.0 sqm (B) 3.0 sqm (C) 4.5 sqm (D) 9.0 sqm

9. Q9. Who bears liability for structural flaws arising from minor additions/alterations done without building permit under clause 2.0.1(d)?

   (A) Only the owner (B) Only the structural engineer (C) Owner and concerned professionals (D) Sanctioning Authority

10. Q10. The information for NOCs from DFS, DUAC, AAI, DPCC etc. is to be provided:

    (A) Separately to each agency (B) Only after plinth level (C) In CAF/COCCRF (D) Through hard-copy annexures only

11. Q11. Assertion (A): CAF consolidates information required for both sanctioning authority and external NOC agencies.
    Reason (R): This is to ensure that building proponents do not have to file multiple separate applications.

    (A) A and R both true, R is correct explanation (B) A and R both true, R not correct explanation (C) A true, R false (D) A false, R true

12. Q12. According to 2.0.4, key plan for layout/site plans shall be drawn to a scale of not less than:

    (A) 1:500 (B) 1:2,000 (C) 1:5,000 (D) 1:10,000

13. Q13. Standard sheet size A1 in Table 2.1 is:

    (A) 420×594 mm (B) 594×841 mm (C) 841×1189 mm (D) 297×420 mm

14. Q14. In recommended colouring of plans, plot lines are shown as:

    (A) Thick red line in both plans (B) Thick green in site plan, thick green in building plan (C) Black in site plan, green in building plan (D) Blue dotted in both plans

15. Q15. Work proposed to be demolished in plans is shown as:

    (A) Thick red line (B) Yellow hatched (C) Blue dotted (D) Green outline

16. Q16. Which of the following combinations of site plan scale and site area is correct as per 2.0.4(e)?

    (A) Up to 1000 sqm – not less than 1:200 (B) Up to 1000 sqm – not less than 1:500 (C) More than 1000 sqm, up to 10,000 sqm – not less than 1:200 (D) Any site area – 1:10,000

17. Q17. The site plan should preferably be part of:

    (A) Sanctioned parking plan only (B) Approved layout plan; if none, governed by MPD/ZDP (C) Structural stability certificate only (D) Soil investigation report only

18. Q18. Ownership documents to accompany building plan application are specified in:

    (A) Bye-law 2.0.3 (B) Bye-law 2.1.1 (C) Bye-law 2.1.2 (D) Bye-law 2.4.4

19. Q19. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched with its form code?

    (A) B-1 – Grant/Refusal of Sanction (B) B-2 – Grant/Refusal of Revalidation (C) C-1 – Intimation of building completion for OCC (D) C-2 – Plinth level inspection report

20. Q20. Assertion (A): There is no requirement of submitting affidavits / bonds / e-stamp papers along with CAF.
    Reason (R): All undertakings/declarations are integrated within CAF/COCCRF.

    (A) A and R both true, R correct explanation (B) A and R both true, R not correct explanation (C) A true, R false (D) A false, R true

21. Q21. In the CAF enclosure list, which of the following is explicitly required?

    (A) Structural stability certificate from CPWD only (B) Tentative date of start and completion of work (C) Copy of all previous sale deeds since 1957 (D) Soil report for all plots

22. Q22. DJB existing connection detail in CAF is required as:

    (A) Ward number (B) Connection number (C) Only consumer name (D) Not required at all

23. Q23. Under 2.1.3 Declaration Proforma, if the owner dispenses with the architect’s services, the architect must inform the authority within:

    (A) 3 days (B) 7 days (C) 15 days (D) 30 days

24. Q24. In the Declaration Proforma, barrier-free provisions as per Chapter 11 must be certified especially for:

    (A) Residential plotted houses (B) Public buildings and infrastructure (C) Only industrial sheds (D) Only EWS housing

25. Q25. Which of the following best explains the purpose of Declaration Proforma under 2.1.3?

    (A) To transfer ownership rights from owner to architect (B) To certify appointment and professional responsibility of architect/engineer/supervisor (C) To waive off all liabilities of the owner (D) To apply for heritage listing

26. Q26. In Annexure III, the building permit fee for regular buildings is generally calculated at:

    (A) ₹2/m² of built-up area (B) ₹5/m² of built-up area (C) ₹10/m² of built-up area (D) Lump sum per plot

27. Q27. In Annexure III, storage buildings/warehouses attract building permit fee at:

    (A) Same as regular buildings (B) ₹2/m² of built-up area (C) ₹10/m² of built-up area (D) No fees

28. Q28. Fee for additional/alteration/revalidation of plans is:

    (A) Half of original permit fee (B) Same as original building permit fee rate (C) Double the original permit fee (D) Nominal fixed fee only

29. Q29. For layout/land sub-division approval, the fee is:

    (A) ₹1,000 per acre for all types (B) ₹10,000 per acre (general), with lower slab for storage buildings (C) ₹50,000 per acre (D) Based only on number of plots

30. Q30. Resubmission fee for rejected building plan (up to three subsequent rejections) is:

    (A) Full permit fee again (B) ₹1/m² of built-up area (C) ₹10/m² of built-up area (D) Zero

Show Set 1 Answer Key

Q1–B Q2–B Q3–D Q4–C Q5–C Q6–C Q7–B Q8–C Q9–C Q10–C Q11–A Q12–D Q13–B Q14–B Q15–B Q16–A Q17–B Q18–C Q19–C Q20–A Q21–B Q22–B Q23–B Q24–B Q25–B Q26–C Q27–B Q28–B Q29–B Q30–B

Set 2 – 30 MCQs (Validity, Plinth, OCC, Regularisation)

Attempt all questions and then click “Check Set 2 Answers”.

1. Q31. Maximum validity period of a building permit from date of issue is:

   (A) 3 years (B) 5 years (C) 7 years (D) 10 years

2. Q32. Condition attached to validity of building permit is that construction must start within:

   (A) 6 months from sanction (B) 1 year from sanction (C) 2 years from sanction (D) No such condition

3. Q33. Application for OCC shall NOT be entertained if submitted later than:

   (A) 7 days after permit expiry (B) 15 days after permit expiry (C) 30 days after permit validity expiry (or lease extension expiry for leasehold) (D) 60 days after permit expiry

4. Q34. Revalidation of building permit can be granted:

   (A) Only once for 3 years (B) For periods in multiples of a year, not exceeding 5 years at a time (C) For unlimited time till completion (D) Only for residential plots

5. Q35. For revalidation, ownership documents as per bye-law 2.1.2 are required especially in case of:

   (A) Plots smaller than 50 sqm (B) Change of ownership or expiry of lease construction period (C) Transfer of architect (D) Addition of basement

6. Q36. Maximum time allowed to communicate decision on revalidation application is:

   (A) As per Chapter 3 or 30 days, whichever is less (B) 60 days from application (C) One year from application (D) No time limit

7. Q37. At construction site, the owner/contractor must ensure availability of:

   (A) Soil test report at all times (B) Sanctioned building plan copy (C) OCC copy (D) Affidavit of structural engineer

8. Q38. First inspection by sanctioning authority is generally conducted at:

   (A) Foundation level (B) Super-structure level (C) Plinth level (D) Finishing stage

9. Q39. Assertion (A): After UBBL 2016 notification, SA’s inspection for sanction of building plan for all buildings has been done away with.
   Reason (R): It has been replaced with risk-based online scrutiny and plinth/OCC inspections.

   (A) A and R both true, R correct explanation (B) A and R both true, R not correct explanation (C) A true, R false (D) A false, R true

10. Q40. Plinth level inspection is carried out by qualified professionals / SA as per:

    (A) Floor Area Ratio (B) Plot size alone (C) Risk category of buildings (D) Number of storeys only

11. Q41. For very low and low risk buildings, the plinth level inspection report in Form C-2 is submitted by:

    (A) Sanctioning authority (B) Architect/engineer/supervisor (C) Fire department (D) Structural engineer only

12. Q42. For moderate and high risk buildings, intimation of plinth completion in Form C-1 is submitted by:

    (A) Owner directly (B) Architect/engineer/supervisor on behalf of owner (C) Contractor only (D) DFS

13. Q43. Time limit for SA to carry out plinth inspection and issue report (Form C-2) after receipt of C-1 is:

    (A) 3 days (B) 7 days (C) 15 days (D) 30 days

14. Q44. “Deemed plinth inspection clearance” concept primarily protects:

    (A) Owner from unlimited delays in plinth inspection (B) Architect from any liability (C) SA from RTI queries (D) Contractor from payments

15. Q45. OCC application is to be made using:

    (A) CAF only (B) Independent letter to DDA (C) COCCRF (D) Annexure IV only

16. Q46. Which one is NOT a component of COCCRF / OCC process?

    (A) Intimation of building completion by professionals and owner (B) Certificate of structural safety (C) Common request for OCC and NOCs (D) Demand for change of land use

17. Q47. Final inspection for OCC is to be:

    (A) Conducted separately by each department on different dates (B) A single joint site inspection by all concerned departments (C) Only a desktop scrutiny (D) Optional for low-risk buildings

18. Q48. As per 2.7.10(a), OCC is deemed issued when:

    (A) Owner occupies building before completion (B) SA fails to intimate approval/refusal/any intimation within stipulated time of 2.7.1 (C) Architect certifies completion (D) Fire NOC is received

19. Q49. Deemed OCC shall be released only after:

    (A) Payment of property tax (B) Owner informs SA about deposit of requisite fees and charges (C) Submission of building completion photographs (D) Submission of structural drawings

20. Q50. Deemed OCC does NOT authorize:

    (A) Use of building as per occupancy (B) Owner to contravene lease/title conditions (C) Payment of user charges (D) Registration of property sale deed

21. Q51. If owner fails to remove OCC shortcomings within 15 days from communication, then:

    (A) OCC is automatically granted (B) Application is rejected and building permit fees forfeited (C) Application kept pending indefinitely (D) Only penalty is imposed, but OCC processed

22. Q52. Assertion (A): Time period for OCC issue is recalculated from date of last compliance submission by owner.
    Reason (R): This ensures SA gets full stipulated period after each communication is complied with.

    (A) A and R both true, R correct explanation (B) A and R both true, R not correct explanation (C) A true, R false (D) A false, R true

23. Q53. Under 2.8, unauthorized construction can be regularised only if:

    (A) Owner files an affidavit of poverty (B) It lies within ambit of BBL and MPD and requisite fees/charges are paid (C) Building is more than 20 years old (D) Only FAR violations are present

24. Q54. Regularisation is issued in:

    (A) Form B-1 (B) Form C-2 (C) Form D-3 (D) Form A-1

25. Q55. Under 2.9.1, revocation of building permit can be done when:

    (A) Owner delays construction (B) False statement/misrepresentation of material facts in application is found (C) Architect changes (D) Property is sold

26. Q56. Penal action for unauthorised development beyond permissible/compoundable limits may include:

    (A) Only compounding fees (B) Demolition, sealing, prosecution & criminal proceedings (C) Change of land use (D) Only warning letter

27. Q57. Cost and risk of demolition in unauthorized construction cases is borne by:

    (A) Sanctioning authority (B) Local MLA (C) Owner (D) Contractor

28. Q58. Under 2.9.3, if false statements are made for building permit, sanctioning authority may:

    1. Delist the professional(s) for a specified period
    2. Revoke the building permit
    3. Display details of delisted professionals on websites

    (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

29. Q59. In case of defaulting architect, sanctioning authority also informs:

    (A) Town & Country Planning Organisation (B) Council of Architecture (COA) (C) BIS (D) UDD, GNCTD

30. Q60. Latent defects liability applies to buildings of all risk categories having plot area:

    (A) 200 sqm and above (B) 500 sqm and above (C) 750 sqm and above (D) 1000 sqm and above

Show Set 2 Answer Key

Q31–B Q32–B Q33–C Q34–B Q35–B Q36–A Q37–B Q38–C Q39–A Q40–C Q41–B Q42–B Q43–B Q44–A Q45–C Q46–D Q47–B Q48–B Q49–B Q50–B Q51–B Q52–A Q53–B Q54–C Q55–B Q56–B Q57–C Q58–D Q59–B Q60–C

Set 3 – 30 MCQs (Latent Defects, GRC, Owner’s Liability)

Attempt all questions and then click “Check Set 3 Answers”.

1. Q61. Who are held liable for structural flaws/defects under latent defects liability (for eligible plots)?

   (A) Only architect and structural engineer (B) Only developer (C) Architect, structural engineer, site supervisor/engineer, developer/landowner/construction company/contractors & sub-contractors (D) Only owner

2. Q62. What type of insurance is mandated under latent defects liability?

   (A) Life insurance (B) Fire insurance (C) Decennial professional liability insurance (D) Group medical insurance

3. Q63. As per 2.11, granting permission/approval and inspections by SA:

   (A) Fully transfer liability from owner to SA (B) Partially transfer liability from professionals to SA (C) Do not relieve owner of responsibility to follow bye-laws (D) Remove need for professionals

4. Q64. Assertion (A): Even after getting sanctioned plan and OCC, owner remains responsible for conformity with BBL.
   Reason (R): SA approval is only a technical vetting and does not regularise violations.

   (A) A and R both true, R correct explanation (B) A and R both true, R not correct explanation (C) A true, R false (D) A false, R true

5. Q65. Pre-Code Building Permit means:

   (A) Permit issued under MPD 2021 (B) Validity of permit granted before enforcement of these building bye-laws (C) Permit issued under SARAL scheme (D) Permit for heritage buildings only

6. Q66. Grievance Redressal Committee, as per definition 1.4.56, is primarily meant for:

   (A) Deciding land acquisition compensation (B) Addressing complaints/appeals related to building bye-laws in a time-bound manner (C) Handling property tax disputes (D) Resolving labour disputes on site

7. Q67. Decisions of Grievance Redressal Committee regarding interpretation of BBL are:

   (A) Recommendatory only (B) Advisory to SA (C) Final and binding (D) Subject to automatic review every year

8. Q68. All decisions of Grievance Redressal Committee must be:

   (A) Kept confidential in SA file (B) Recorded in minutes and placed on SA website (C) Sent only to complainant (D) Forwarded to COA

9. Q69. Under 1.9 Miscellaneous, persons who may pursue cases in SA offices include:

   1. Owner
   2. Duly appointed architect/engineer/supervisor
   3. Any property dealer with visiting card

   (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

10. Q70. Under 1.9, owners/applicants are advised to:

    (A) Always send agents/property dealers (B) Avoid deputing unauthorised persons to visit DDA/local body offices (C) Not visit offices themselves (D) Avoid online system

11. Q71. In CAF, Latent Defects Liability Insurance Policy is referenced with:

    (A) Clause 1.4.76 (B) Clause 2.10 of UBBL 2016 (C) Annexure II (D) Annexure IV

12. Q72. In CAF enclosure list, services plan (water, sewer, etc.) is required as per:

    (A) Chapter 7 (B) Chapter 8 (C) Chapter 9, sub-clause 9.4.6 (D) Chapter 11

13. Q73. For which of the following works is notice and building permit NOT required?

    1. White washing and painting
    2. Reconstruction of portions damaged by earthquake to same extent & as per sanctioned plan
    3. Addition of one extra habitable floor
    4. Construction/reconstruction of parapet and boundary wall as per bye-laws

    (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only (C) 1 and 4 only (D) 2 and 3 only

14. Q74. Opening and closing of windows/doors without permit is allowed only when:

    (A) Opening is towards public street (B) Opening is towards neighbouring private property (C) Opening is within owner’s plot and not towards public/others’ property (D) In any direction if owner wishes

15. Q75. Erection of lifts in existing buildings is allowed without building permit in:

    (A) Any high-rise group housing (B) Any industrial building (C) Existing buildings in residential plotted low-rise development (D) Only institutional buildings

16. Q76. HVAC/MEP/UGR/STP changes without building permit are allowed, provided they:

    (A) Reduce FAR (B) Do not hinder others’/public property (C) Increase built-up area (D) Are in basement only

17. Q77. Landscaping and public art works:

    (A) Always require full building permit (B) Never allowed in setbacks (C) Are explicitly listed under works not requiring building permit (D) Are treated as change of land use

18. Q78. Which statement is NOT CORRECT about CAF and COCCRF?

    (A) Undertakings/declarations can be part of CAF/COCCRF (B) Separate affidavits and bonds are compulsory with CAF (C) Information for external NOCs is collected through CAF/COCCRF (D) They support integrated online approval process

19. Q79. Common Application Form directly helps in:

    (A) Eliminating need for joint inspection (B) Integrating local body and external agency information at one go (C) Replacing OCC inspection (D) Removing all fees and charges

20. Q80. Which sequence best represents chronological order in Chapter 2 procedure?

    (A) OCC → CAF → Plinth inspection → Sanction (B) CAF → Sanction → Plinth intimation → OCC application → Joint inspection → Release of OCC (C) Plinth inspection → CAF → Sanction → OCC (D) OCC application → CAF → Sanction → Plinth

21. Q81. For heritage buildings, minor additions/alterations list under 2.0.1(d):

    (A) Does not apply at all (B) Applies only after NOC from HCC as per Annexure II (C) Is automatically permitted (D) Is transferred to DUAC

22. Q82. Under which clause is construction to be in conformity with BBL and owners’ liability explicitly stated?

    (A) 2.3 (B) 2.4 (C) 2.10 (D) 2.11

23. Q83. Which one is NOT part of professionals held liable under 2.10(a)?

    (A) Architect (B) Structural Engineer (C) Developer/Landowner (D) Town Planner of DDA

24. Q84. Decennial professional liability insurance under 2.10(b) generally covers:

    (A) 3-year structural liability (B) 5-year workmanship liability (C) 10-year professional liability for structural defects (D) Only equipment breakdown

25. Q85. Scenario: An owner’s architect resigns but does not inform the sanctioning authority. Which statement is most accurate under 2.1.3?

    (A) No consequence; only owner must inform (B) Architect has duty to inform SA within 7 days, along with photo of building showing status (C) Only structural engineer must inform (D) OCC will automatically be refused

26. Q86. Scenario: SA fails to issue OCC or communicate shortcomings within stipulated time; owner has paid all fees. What is correct?

    (A) Owner must reapply (B) OCC application lapses (C) OCC shall be deemed issued, subject to release after intimation of fee deposit (D) Building is treated as unauthorized

27. Q87. Scenario: Owner repeatedly ignores OCC shortcomings and does not respond for more than 15 days. Under 2.7.11, SA should:

    (A) Grant OCC with penalty (B) Reject OCC application and forfeit building permit fees (C) Keep case pending (D) Issue partial OCC

28. Q88. Why is demolition in unauthorized development cases done “at the risk and cost of the owner”?

    (A) To discourage frivolous complaints (B) To shift financial burden of violation consequences to violator (C) To fund SA’s general budget (D) Because contractors are always innocent

29. Q89. Assertion (A): Delisting details of defaulting professionals are to be prominently displayed on websites of all sanctioning authorities in Delhi.
    Reason (R): This increases transparency and acts as a deterrent against misrepresentation.

    (A) A and R both true, R correct explanation (B) A and R both true, R not correct explanation (C) A true, R false (D) A false, R true

30. Q90. Overall aim of Chapter 2 (read with Chapters 3 & 4) is to:

    (A) Make building approvals more discretionary and manual (B) Simplify, streamline and fast-track online approvals while ensuring compliance with MPD & BBL (C) Eliminate involvement of external agencies (D) Remove all types of inspections

Show Set 3 Answer Key

Q61–C Q62–C Q63–C Q64–A Q65–B Q66–B Q67–C Q68–B Q69–B Q70–B Q71–B Q72–C Q73–B Q74–C Q75–C Q76–B Q77–C Q78–B Q79–B Q80–B Q81–B Q82–D Q83–D Q84–C Q85–B Q86–C Q87–B Q88–B Q89–A Q90–B